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NURSING MED-SURG II HESI EXAM VERIFIED ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FOR GUARANTEED PASS
“The nurse is completing a health assessment of a 42-year-old female with suspected Graves' Disease. The nurse should assess this client for:
- anorexia
- tachycardia
- weight gain
4. cold skin - CORRECT ANSWER 2. tachycardia
Graves' disease, the most common type of thyrotoxicosis, is a state of hypermetabolism. The increased metabolic rate generates heat and produces tachycardia and fine muscle tremors. Anorexia is associated with hypothyroidism. Loss of weight, despite a good appetite and adequate caloric intake, is a common feature of hyperthyroidism. Cold skin is associated with hypothyroidism. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze" "The nurse should teach the client with Graves' disease to prevent corneal irritation from mild exophthalmos by:
- Massaging the eyes at regular intervals.
- Instilling an ophthalmic anesthetic as prescribed.
- Wearing dark-colored glasses.
4. Covering both eyes with moistened gauze pads. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Wearing dark-
colored glasses. Treatment of mild ophthalmopathy that may accompany thyrotoxicosis includes measures such as wearing sunglasses to protect the eyes from corneal irritation. Treatment of ophthalmopathy should be performed in consultation with an ophthalmologist. Massaging the eyes will not help to protect the cornea. An ophthalmic anesthetic is used to examine and possibly treat a painful eye, not protect the cornea. Covering the eyes with moist gauze pads is not a satisfactory nursing measure to protect the eyes of a client with exophthalmos because treatment is not focused on moisture to the eye but rather on protecting the cornea and optic nerve. In exophthalmos, the retrobulbar connective tissues and extraocular muscle volume are expanded because of fluid retention. The pressure is also increased. CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize"
"A client with Graves' disease is treated with radioactive iodine (RAI) in the form of sodium iodide 131I. Which of the following statements by the nurse will explain to the client how the drug works?
- "The RAI stabilizes the thyroid hormone levels before a thyroidectomy."
- "The RAI reduces uptake of thyroxine and thereby improves your condition."
- "The RAI lowers the levels of thyroid hormones by slowing your body's production of them."
4. "The RAI destroys thyroid tissue so that thyroid hormones are no longer produced." -
CORRECT ANSWER 4. "The RAI destroys thyroid tissue so that thyroid hormones are no
longer produced." Sodium iodide 131I destroys the thyroid follicular cells, and thyroid hormones are no longer produced. RAI is commonly recommended for clients with Graves' disease, especially the elderly. The treatment results in a "medical thyroidectomy." RAI is given in lieu of surgery, not before surgery. RAI does not reduce uptake of thyroxine. The outcome of giving RAI is the destruction of the thyroid follicular cells. It is possible to slow the production of thyroid hormones with RAI. CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize" "After treatment with radioactive iodine (RAI) in the form of sodium iodide 131I, the nurse teaches the client to:
- Monitor for signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
- Rest for 1 week to prevent complications of the medication.
- Take thyroxine replacement for the remainder of the client's life.
4. Assess for hypertension and tachycardia resulting from altered thyroid activity. - CORRECT
ANSWER 3. Take thyroxine replacement for the remainder of the client's life.
The client needs to be educated about the need for lifelong thyroid hormone replacement. Permanent hypothyroidism is the major complication of RAI 131I treatment. Lifelong medical follow-up and thyroid replacement are warranted. The client needs to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Resting for 1 week is not necessary. Hypertension and tachycardia are signs of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize" "The nurse is teaching a diabetic client using an empowerment approach. The nurse should initiate teaching by asking which of the following?
4. Right or left Sims. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Low Fowler's"
"After a subtotal gastrectomy, the nurse is developing a plan with the client to assist the client to gain weight. To help the client meet nutritional goals at home, the nurse should:
- Instruct the client to increase the amount eaten at each meal.
- Encourage the client to eat smaller amounts more frequently.
- Explain that if vomiting occurs after a meal, nothing more should be eaten that day.
- Inform the client that bland foods are typically less nutritional and should be used minimally.
CORRECT ANSWER 2. Encourage the client to eat smaller amounts more frequently."
"To reduce the risk of dumping syndrome, the nurse should teach the client to do which of the following?
- Sit upright for 30 minutes after meals.
- Drink liquids with meals, avoiding caffeine.
- Avoid milk and other dairy products.
4. Decrease the carbohydrate content of meals. - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Decrease the
carbohydrate content of meals." "A client who is recovering from a subtotal gastrectomy experiences dumping syndrome. The client asks the nurse, "When will I be able to eat three meals a day again like I used to?" Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
- "Eating six meals a day is time-consuming, isn't it?"
- "You will have to eat six small meals a day for the rest of your life."
- "You will be able to tolerate three meals a day before you are discharged."
4. "Most clients can resume their normal meal patterns in about 6 to 12 months." - CORRECT
ANSWER 4. "Most clients can resume their normal meal patterns in about 6 to 12 months.""
"What should the nurse teach a client about how to avoid the dumping syndrome? Select all that apply.
- Consume three regularly spaced meals per day.
- Eat a diet with high-carbohydrate foods with each meal.
- Reduce fluids with meals, but take them between meals.
- Obtain adequate amounts of protein and fat in each meal.
5. Eat in a relaxing environment. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Reduce fluids with meals, but take
them between meals.
- Obtain adequate amounts of protein and fat in each meal.
- Eat in a relaxing environment."
"After surgery for gastric cancer, a client is scheduled to undergo radiation therapy. It will be most important for the nurse to include information about which of the following in the client's teaching plan?
- Nutritional intake.
- Management of alopecia.
- Exercise and activity levels.
4. Access to community resources. - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Nutritional intake."
"The nurse should instruct the client with a platelet count of 31,000/ μL (31 × 109/L) to:
- Pad sharp surfaces to avoid minor trauma when walking.
- Assess for spontaneous petechiae in the extremities.
- Keep the room darkened.
4. Check for blood in the urine. - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Pad sharp surfaces to avoid minor
trauma when walking." "A client with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus was admitted with a severe viral respiratory tract infection and diffuse petechiae. Based on these data, it is most important that the nurse further evaluate the client's recent:
- Quality and quantity of food intake.
- Type and amount of fluid intake.
- Weakness, fatigue, and ability to get around.
4. Length and amount of menstrual flow. - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Length and amount of
menstrual flow." "When a client with thrombocytopenia has a severe headache, the nurse interprets that this may indicate which of the following?
- Stress of the disease.
- Cerebral bleeding.
- Migraine headache.
4. Sinus congestion. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Cerebral bleeding."
"The nurse evaluates that the client correctly understands how to report signs and symptoms of bleeding when the client makes which of the following statements?
- "Petechiae are large, red skin bruises."
- "Ecchymoses are large, purple skin bruises."
- "Purpura is an open cut on the skin."
"A client is scheduled for an elective splenectomy. Immediately before the client goes to surgery, the nurse should determine that the client has:
- Voided completely.
- Signed the consent.
- Vital signs recorded.
4. Name band on wrist - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Vital signs recorded."
"When receiving a client from the post anesthesia care unit after a splenectomy, which should the nurse assess next after obtaining vital signs?
- Nasogastric drainage.
- Urinary catheter.
- Dressing.
4. Need for pain medication. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Dressing."
"The client's family asks why the client who had a splenectomy has a nasogastric (NG) tube. An NG tube is used to:
- Move the stomach away from where the spleen was removed.
- Irrigate the operative site.
- Decrease abdominal distention.
4. Assess for the gastric pH as peristalsis returns. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Decrease
abdominal distention." "A client is admitted with an acute onset of shortness of breath. A diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is made. One common cause of pulmonary embolism is:
- Arteriosclerosis.
- Aneurysm formation.
- Deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
4. Varicose veins. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)."
"A client with a cerebral embolus is receiving streptokinase. The nurse should evaluate the client for which of the following expected outcomes of this drug therapy?
- Improved cerebral perfusion.
- Decreased vascular permeability.
- Dissolved emboli.
4. Prevention of cerebral hemorrhage. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Dissolved emboli."
"Which instructions should the nurse include when developing a teaching plan for a client being discharged from the hospital on anticoagulant therapy after having deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? Select all that apply.
- Checking urine for bright blood and a dark smoky color.
- Walking daily as a good exercise.
- Using garlic and ginger, which may decrease bleeding time.
- Performing foot/leg exercises and walking around the airplane cabin when on long flights.
- Preventing DVT because of risk of pulmonary emboli.
6. Avoiding surface bumps because the skin is prone to injury. - CORRECT ANSWER 1.
Checking urine for bright blood and a dark smoky color.
- Walking daily as a good exercise.
- Performing foot/leg exercises and walking around the airplane cabin when on long flights.
- Preventing DVT because of risk of pulmonary emboli.
- Avoiding surface bumps because the skin is prone to injury." "A client has an emergency embolectomy for an embolus in the femoral artery. After the client returns from the recovery room, in what order, from first to last, should the nurse provide care?
- Administer pain medication.
- Draw blood for laboratory studies.
- Regulate the IV infusion.
- Monitor the pulses.
5. Inspect the dressing. - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Monitor the pulses.
- Inspect the dressing.
- Regulate the IV infusion.
- Administer pain medication.
- Draw blood for laboratory studies. The nurse should first monitor the popliteal and the pedal pulses in the affected extremity after arterial embolectomy. Monitoring peripheral pulses below the site of occlusion checks the arterial circulation in the involved extremity. The nurse should next inspect the dressing to be sure that the client is not bleeding at the surgical site. The nurse should next regulate the IV infusion to prevent fluid overload. Then the nurse should assess pain and administer pain medications as prescribed. Last, the nurse can obtain blood for laboratory studies." "The nurse is developing a discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent a repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm 4 days ago. The nurse reviews the client's chart for information about the client's history. Key findings are noted in the chart below. Based on the data and expected outcomes, which should the nurse emphasize in the teaching plan?
Sitting 102/64, 86. Standing 100/60, 92.
- Supine 138/86, 74. Sitting 136/84, 80. Standing 134/82, 82.
- Supine 100/70, 72. Sitting 100/68, 74.
Standing 98/68, 80. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Supine 120/70, 70.
Sitting 102/64, 86. Standing 100/60, 92. There was a significant change in both blood pressure and heart rate with position change. This indicates inadequate blood volume to sustain normal values. Normal postural changes allow for an increase in heart rate of 5 to 20 bpm, a possible slight decrease of less than 5 mm Hg in the systolic blood pressure, and a possible slight increase of less than 5 mm Hg in the diastolic blood pressure." "A client is taking clonidine (Catapres) for treatment of hypertension. The nurse should teach the client about which of the following common adverse effects of this drug? Select all that apply.
- Dry mouth.
- Hyperkalemia.
- Impotence.
- Pancreatitis.
5. Sleep disturbance. - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Dry mouth.
- Impotence.
- Sleep disturbance. Clonidine (Catapres) is a central-acting adrenergic antagonist. It reduces sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system. Dry mouth, impotence, and sleep disturbances are possible adverse effects. Hyperkalemia and pancreatitis are not anticipated with use of this drug." "A client with hypertensive emergency is being treated with sodium nitroprusside (Nipride). In a dilution of 50 mg/250 mL, how many micrograms of Nipride are in each milliliter?
__________________ mcg. - CORRECT ANSWER 200 mcg
First, calculate the number of milligrams per milliliter: Next, calculate the number of micrograms in each milligram:"
"The nurse is discussing medications with a client with hypertension who has a prescription for furosemide (Lasix) daily. The client needs further education when the client states which of the following?
- "I know I should not drive after taking my Lasix."
- "I should be careful not to stand up too quickly when taking Lasix."
- "I should take the Lasix in the morning instead of before bed."
- "I need to be sure to also take the potassium supplement that the doctor prescribed along with
my Lasix." - CORRECT ANSWER 1. "I know I should not drive after taking my Lasix.""
"In teaching the client with hypertension to avoid orthostatic hypotension, the nurse should emphasize which of the following instructions? Select all that apply.
- Plan regular times for taking medications.
- Arise slowly from bed.
- Avoid standing still for long periods.
- Avoid excessive alcohol intake.
5. Avoid hot baths. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Arise slowly from bed.
- Avoid standing still for long periods." "The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about taking atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should instruct the client to:
- Avoid sudden discontinuation of the drug.
- Monitor the blood pressure annually.
- Follow a 2-g sodium diet.
4. Discontinue the medication if severe headaches develop. - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Avoid
sudden discontinuation of the drug." "The nurse teaches a client who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension about following a low-calorie, low-fat, low-sodium diet. Which of the following menu selections would best meet the client's needs?
- Mixed green salad with blue cheese dressing, crackers, and cold cuts.
- Ham sandwich on rye bread and an orange.
- Baked chicken, an apple, and a slice of white bread.
4. Hot dogs, baked beans, and celery and carrot sticks. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Baked chicken,
an apple, and a slice of white bread." "A client who has diabetes is taking metoprolol (Lopressor) for hypertension. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply
- Reassuring the client that he or she can do the exercise program.
4. Tailoring a program to the client's needs and abilities. - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Tailoring a
program to the client's needs and abilities." "The client realizes the importance of quitting smoking, and the nurse develops a plan to help the client achieve this goal. Which of the following nursing interventions should be the initial step in this plan?
- Review the negative effects of smoking on the body.
- Discuss the effects of passive smoking on environmental pollution.
- Establish the client's daily smoking pattern.
4. Explain how smoking worsens high blood pressure. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Establish the
client's daily smoking pattern." "When teaching a client about propranolol hydrochloride, the nurse should base the information on the knowledge that propranolol:
- Blocks beta-adrenergic stimulation and thus causes decreased heart rate, myocardial contractility, and conduction.
- Increases norepinephrine secretion and thus decreases blood pressure and heart rate.
- Is a potent arterial and venous vasodilator that reduces peripheral vascular resistance and lowers blood pressure.
- Is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor that reduces blood pressure by blocking the
conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Blocks beta-adrenergic
stimulation and thus causes decreased heart rate, myocardial contractility, and conduction." "When conducting a health history with a female client with thyrotoxicosis, the nurse should ask about which of the following changes in the menstrual cycle?
- dysmenorrhea
- metrorrhagia
- oligomenorrhea
4. menorrhagia - CORRECT ANSWER 3. oligomenorrhea
A change in the menstrual interval, diminished menstrual flow (oligomenorrhea), or even the absence of menstruation (amenorrhea) may result from the hormonal imbalances of thyrotoxicosis. Oligomenorrhea in women and decreased libido and impotence in men are common features of thyrotoxicosis. Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation. Metrorrhagia, blood loss between menstrual periods, is a symptom of hypothyroidism. Menorrhagia, excessive bleeding during menstrual periods, is a symptom of hypothyroidism. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze"
"A 34-year-old female is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- rapid pulse
- decreased energy and fatigue
- weight gain of 10 lbs (4.5 kg)
- fine, thin hair with hair loss
- constipation
6. menorrhagia. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. decreased energy and fatigue, 3. weight gain of 10 lbs
(4.5 kg), 5. constipation, 6. menorrhagia Clients with hypothyroidism exhibit symptoms indicating a lack of thyroid hormone. Bradycardia, decreased energy and lethargy, memory problems, weight gain, coarse hair, constipation, and menorrhagia are common signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze" "Propylthiouracil (PTU) is prescribed for a client with Graves' disease. The nurse should teach the client to immediately report which of the following?
- sore throat
- painful, excessive menstruation
- constipation
4. increased urine output - CORRECT ANSWER 1. sore throat
The most serious adverse effects of PTU are leukopenia and agranulocytosis, which usually occur within the first 3 months of treatment. The client should be taught to promptly report to the health care provider signs and symptoms of infection, such as a sore throat and fever. Clients having a sore throat and fever should have an immediate white blood cell count and differential performed, and the drug must be withheld until the results are obtained. Painful menstruation, constipation, and increased urine output are not associated with PTU therapy. CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize" "A client with thyrotoxicosis says to the nurse, "I am so irritable. I am having problems at work because I lose my temper very easily." Which of the following responses by the nurse would give the client the most accurate explanation of her behavior?
- "Your behavior is caused by temporary confusion brought on by your illness."
SSKI is frequently administered before a thyroidectomy because it helps decrease the vascularity of the thyroid gland. A highly vascular thyroid gland is very friable, a condition that presents a hazard during surgery. Preparation of the client for surgery includes depleting the gland of thyroid hormone and decreasing vascularity. SSKI does not decrease the progression of exophthalmos, and it does not decrease the body's ability to store thyroxine or increase the body's ability to excrete thyroxine. CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Apply" "The nurse is administering a saturated solution of potassium iodide (SSKI). The nurse should:
- Pour the solution over ice chips.
- Mix the solution with an antacid.
- Dilute the solution with water, milk, or fruit juice and have the client drink it with a straw.
4. Disguise the solution in a pureed fruit or vegetable. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Dilute the
solution with water, milk, or fruit juice and have the client drink it with a straw. SSKI should be diluted well in milk, water, juice, or a carbonated beverage before administration to help disguise the strong, bitter taste. Also, this drug is irritating to mucosa if taken undiluted. The client should sip the diluted preparation through a drinking straw to help prevent staining of the teeth. Pouring the solution over ice chips will not sufficiently dilute the SSKI or cover the taste. Antacids are not used to dilute or cover the taste of SSKI. Mixing in a puree would put the SSKI in contact with the teeth. CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Apply" "Following a subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse asks the client to speak immediately upon regaining consciousness. The nurse does this to monitor for signs of which of the following?
- Internal hemorrhage.
- Decreasing level of consciousness.
- Laryngeal nerve damage.
4. Upper airway obstruction. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Laryngeal nerve damage.
Laryngeal nerve damage is a potential complication of thyroid surgery because of the proximity of the thyroid gland to the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Asking the client to speak helps assess for signs of laryngeal nerve damage. Persistent or worsening hoarseness and weak voice are signs of laryngeal nerve damage and should be reported to the physician immediately. Internal hemorrhage is detected by changes in vital signs. The client's level of consciousness can be partially assessed by asking her to speak, but that
is not the primary reason for doing so in this situation. Upper airway obstruction is detected by color and respiratory rate and pattern. CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Analyze" "A client who has undergone a subtotal thyroidectomy is subject to complications in the first 48 hours after surgery. The nurse should obtain and keep at the bedside equipment to:
- Begin total parenteral nutrition.
- Start a cutdown infusion.
- Administer tube feedings.
4. Perform a tracheotomy. - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Perform a tracheotomy"
"One day following a subtotal thyroidectomy, a client begins to have tingling in the fingers and toes. The nurse should first:
- Encourage the client to flex and extend the fingers and toes.
- Notify the physician.
- Assess the client for thrombophlebitis.
4. Ask the client to speak. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Notify the physician"
"Which of the following medications should be available to provide emergency treatment if a client develops tetany after a subtotal thyroidectomy?
- Sodium phosphate.
- Calcium gluconate.
- Echothiophate iodide.
4. Sodium bicarbonate. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Calcium gluconate"
"A 60-year-old female is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following?
- Tachycardia.
- Weight gain.
- Diarrhea.
4. Nausea. - CORRECT ANSWER Weight gain"
"The nurse should assess a client with hypothyroidism for which of the following?
- Corneal abrasion due to inability to close the eyelids.
"A client is taking an antacid for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following statements best indicates that the client understands how to correctly take the antacid?
- "I should take my antacid before I take my other medications."
- "I need to decrease my intake of fluids so that I don't dilute the effects of my antacid."
- "My antacid will be most effective if I take it whenever I experience stomach pains."
4. "It is best for me to take my antacid 1 to 3 hours after meals." - CORRECT ANSWER 4. "It is
best for me to take my antacid 1 to 3 hours after meals."" "Which of the following would be an expected outcome for a client with peptic ulcer disease? The client will:
- Demonstrate appropriate use of analgesics to control pain.
- Explain the rationale for eliminating alcohol from the diet.
- Verbalize the importance of monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit every 3 months.
4. Eliminate engaging in contact sports. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Explain the rationale for
eliminating alcohol from the diet." "Which of the following would be an expected outcome for a client with peptic ulcer disease? The client will:
- Demonstrate appropriate use of analgesics to control pain.
- Explain the rationale for eliminating alcohol from the diet.
- Verbalize the importance of monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit every 3 months.
4. Eliminate engaging in contact sports. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Explain the rationale for
eliminating alcohol from the diet." "A client with suspected gastric cancer undergoes an endoscopy of the stomach. Which of the following assessments made after the procedure would indicate the development of a potential complication?
- The client has a sore throat.
- The client displays signs of sedation.
- The client experiences a sudden increase in temperature.
4. The client demonstrates a lack of appetite. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. The client experiences a
sudden increase in temperature." "A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During preoperative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the surgical procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?
- The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter.
- The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.
- The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum.
4. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. The
procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum." "Since the diagnosis of stomach cancer, the client has been having trouble sleeping and is frequently preoccupied with thoughts about how life will change. The client says, "I wish my life could stay the same." Based on this information, the nurse should understand that the client:
- Is having difficulty coping.
- Has a sleep disorder.
- Is grieving.
4. Is anxious. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Is grieving"
"After a subtotal gastrectomy, the nasogastric tube drainage will be what color for about 12 to 24 hours after surgery?
- Dark brown.
- Bile green.
- Bright red.
4. Cloudy white. - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Dark brown"
"A client has a nasogastric (NG) tube following a subtotal gastrectomy. The nurse should:
- Irrigate the tube with 30 mL of sterile water every hour, if needed.
- Reposition the tube if it is not draining well.
- Monitor the client for nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention.
4. Turn the machine to high suction if the drainage is sluggish on low suction. - CORRECT
ANSWER 3. Monitor the client for nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention."
"A client who is recovering from gastric surgery is receiving IV fluids to be infused at 100 mL/h. The IV tubing delivers 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should infuse the solution at a flow rate of how many drops per minute to ensure that the client receives 100 mL/h?
____________ gtt/min. - CORRECT ANSWER 25 gtt/min
To administer IV fluids at 100 mL/h using tubing that has a drip factor of 15 gtt/mL, the nurse should use the following formula: 100 mL/60 minutes × 15 gtts/1 mL = 25 gtt/min."
