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Compre Clinical Microscopy, Exams of Health sciences

Adamson University (AU)Health sciences

Sample questions about Clinical Microscopy

Typology: Exams

2014/2015

Uploaded on 09/23/2023

raine-madriaga
raine-madriaga 🇵🇭

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CLINICAL MICROSCOPY COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION
Instructions: Multiple choice. Select the BEST answer for each of the following questions.
1. Which of the following is a post-analytical component of a quality assurance program?
a) critical values
b) procedure manuals
c) preventive maintenance
d) test utilization
2. Inability to produce ammonia in renal tubular acidosis results to a urine with a pH that is:
a) low
b) high
c) neutral
3. What crystal can be detected in urine in cases of Fanconi's syndrome?
a) uric acid
b) cystine
c) tyrosine
d) bilirubin
4. The mechanism of ascorbic acid interference in reagent strip reactions is?
a) inhibits oxidation of chromogen
b) removes a reactant from an intended reaction sequence
c) inactivates a reactant producing color
d) interacts with reactants masking the results
5. The Limulus Lysate assay in CSF is a sensitive test for :
a) demyelinating disease of the spinal cord
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Top of Form

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION

Instructions: Multiple choice. Select the BEST answer for each of the following questions.

  1. Which of the following is a post-analytical component of a quality assurance program? a) critical values b) procedure manuals c) preventive maintenance d) test utilization
  2. Inability to produce ammonia in renal tubular acidosis results to a urine with a pH that is: a) low b) high c) neutral
  3. What crystal can be detected in urine in cases of Fanconi's syndrome? a) uric acid b) cystine c) tyrosine d) bilirubin
  4. The mechanism of ascorbic acid interference in reagent strip reactions is? a) inhibits oxidation of chromogen b) removes a reactant from an intended reaction sequence c) inactivates a reactant producing color d) interacts with reactants masking the results
  5. The Limulus Lysate assay in CSF is a sensitive test for : a) demyelinating disease of the spinal cord

b) gram (-) bacteria infection c) Cryptococcus meningitides infection d) open neural tube defects

  1. Increased amounts of 5 - HIAA in the urine is indicative of: a) Argentaffinoma of the intestines b) Intestinal obstruction c) Platelet disorder d) Malbsorption syndrome
  2. Select from the choices the most significant parameter in classifying an effusion: a) RBC count b) glucose concentration c) WBC count d) protein concentration
  3. Which among the following is NOT a component of an ejaculate? a) fructose b) seminal plasma c) galactose d) citrate and bicarbonate
  4. All conditions can possibly lead to mental retardation in infants when not detected early and treated EXCEPT: a) homocystinuria b) phenylketonuria c) Sanfilippo’s syndrome d) Porphyria
  5. The Hart’s test is primarily employed for the detection of what substance in urine? a) glucose

b) elevated ALP in intestinal perforation c) low glucose in tubercular peritonitis d) elevated LD in rupture of the bladder

  1. Which of the following tests is a sensitive screening method for salicylate poisoning? a) Latex Agglutination Nephelometric Immunoassay b) Urine Trinder Spot test c) Monoclonal Antibody Assay d) Renal clearance test
  2. The probable reason for the presence of bilirubin BUT absence of urobilinogen in the urine is: a) intravascular hemolysis b) biliary tract obstruction c) acute hepatitis d) cirrhosis of the liver
  3. The cut- off value in grams of protein in a transudate differentiating it from exudate is: a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5
  4. The color change of chromogen KI in multistix is from: a) pink to purple at 20 s b) yellow to orange brown at 60 s c) blue to brown at 30 s d) green to blue at 30 s
  5. Majority of the filtered sodium is reabsorbed in the : a) proximal convoluted tubule b) descending loop of henle

c) ascending loop of henle d) distal convoluted tubule

  1. Which component of the nephron is located exclusively in the renal medulla? a) collecting tubules b) loop of henle c) distal tubules d) proximal tubules
  2. Which of the following is not a feature of the renal countercurrent multiplier mechanism? a) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water. b) The descending limb of the loop of Henle passively reabsorbs water. c) The descending limb of the loop of Henle actively reabsorbs sodium and urea. d) The fluid in the ascending and descending limbs of the loop of Henle flows in opposite directions.
  3. The preservative of choice for synovial fluid analysis: a) oxalate b) heparin c) EDTA d) lithium
  4. Increased viscosity of synovial fluid is observed in which among the following? a) gout and pseudogout b) systemic LE c) septic arthritis d) rheumatoid arthritis
  5. Which of the following is not used as a reagent in the Harrison Spot test for bilirubin? a) ferric chloride b) tricholoroacetic acid
  1. Given the following values, the free water clearance computed is suggestive of? Serum osmolality: 305mOsm/kg Urine volume: 300 mL/2 hours Urine osmolality: 250 mOsm/kg a) hyperosmolality b) hypo-osmolality c) iso-osmolality
  2. Which of the following components is not normally present in synovial fluid? a) fibrinogen b) neutrophils c) protein d) uric acid
  3. Urine titratable acids can be formed when the ultrafiltrate contains: a) ammonia b) bicarbonate c) phosphate d) sodium
  4. Which among the following statements about seminal fluid and its analysis is NOT true? a) Seminal fluid analysis is the most objective way of evaluating male infertility b) Complete clearing time for vasectomy case(s) is 24 months c) Presence of sperm cells in the female genital tract primarily establishes rape cases d) In the selection of donors for therapeutic insemination, seminal fluid analysis must be performed
  5. In which of the following is Human Chorionic Gonadotropin NOT related to? a) FSH b) LH c) TSH d) HpL
  1. What percent of the original ultrafiltrate formed in the urinary space is actually excreted as urine? a) 1 b) 10 c) 25 d) 33
  2. The SQA-V automated machine for semen analysis measures what parameter/s to determine sperm concentration? a) Light diffraction b) Light refraction c) Light interruption d) Light absorbance
  3. All of the following are soluble in acetic acid EXCEPT: a) triple phosphate b) calcium sulfate c) leucine d) calcium oxalate
  4. In a normal kidney function, a urine with a specific gravity of 1.010 has approximately ____ osmolality. a) 400 mOsm/kg b) 500 mOsm/kg c) 800 mOsm/kg d) 1 200 mOsm/kg
  5. A mixture of abnormal serum proteins found in cases of macroglobulinemia is referred to as: a) Tamm-Horsfall protein b) Bence Jones proteins c) globulin d) fibrinogen
  1. The tumor marker in CSF that is a sensitive indicator of CNS malignancy and in inflammatory neurologic diseases. a) Ferritin b) CEA c) HCG d) AFP
  2. In which among the following conditions is the volume of sputum decreased? a) lung cancer b) acute pneumonia c) bronchial asthma d) acute bronchitis
  3. The acute phase reactant protein that is used in differentiating bacterial from viral meningitis is? a) C-reactive protein b) fibrinolectin c) B2 - microglobulin d) myelin basic protein
  4. Which of the following gives a false positive foam test result for bilirubin? a) ampicillin b) phenazopyridine c) barbiturates d) sulfonamides
  5. Inability of sperm cells to penetrate the cervical mucous and ovum is due to : a) Head directed antibodies b) Tail directed antibodies c) Neck directed antibodies d) Head, tail and neck directed antibodies
  1. Bilirubin and urobilinogen are best preserved in urine through: a) Freezing b) Boric acid c) Formalin d) Thymol
  2. Which statement is true about CSF? a) The normal values for monocytes in infants are higher than in adults. b) The absolute neutrophilia is not significant if the total WBC count is less than 25/ul. c) The first aliquot of CSF should be sent to the microbiology laboratory. d) Neutrophils comprise the majority of WBC in normal CSF.
  3. Which among the following is categorized as a renal disorder resulting from incomplete carbohydrate and protein metabolism? a) Cystinuria b) Galactosuria c) Melanuria d) Mucopolysaccharidoses Instructions: Correlation Test. From the given choices, select ALL possible answers applicable to the question. This would mean that one, two or three answers may be possible. To be given a credit, you should have no excess or missing answer.
  4. Which of the following physical characteristics of urine is affected by the following conditions? i. crystal precipitation a) urine color b) urine clarity c) urine odor ii. oxidation-reduction of solutes

a) Random urine b) First morning urine c) Timed urine v. evaluation of fistula a) Random urine b) First morning urine c) Timed urine

  1. Which method of urine collection is: i. involving collection of urine directly into the urinary bladder a) midstream clean catch b) catheterized c) suprapubic ii. used for differentiating kidney diseases a) midstream clean catch b) catheterized c) suprapubic iii. used for bacterial culture a) midstream clean catch b) catheterized c) suprapubic iv. used for cytology studies a) midstream clean catch b) catheterized c) suprapubic v. used for routine urinalysis

a) midstream clean catch b) catheterized c) suprapubic

  1. Which of the following urine elements is pertained to by the given situation? i. May undergo volatilization a) Nitrite b) Ketones c) Glucose ii. Prone to cellular consumption a) Nitrite b) Ketones c) Glucose iii. Change in urine concentration results from bacterial action a) Nitrite b) Ketones c) Glucose iv. Increased in unpreserved urine a) Nitrite b) Ketones c) Glucose
  2. Which of the following methods for measuring urine specific gravity is described by the following? i. Measures all solutes in urine a) Reagent strip b) Refractometer c) Oscillation Densitometer

a) cortical collecting tubules b) proximal convoluted tubules c) ascending loop of henle

  1. Which among the following are dye-binding colorimetric methods for CSF protein? a) Benzethonium Chloride b) Ponceau S c) Pyrogallol Red Molybdate
  2. Causes a false positive urine glucose reagent strip reaction: a) Urine contaminated with bleach b) Increased amount of ascorbic acid c) Improperly stored specimen
  3. Action/s of renin: a) Renin stimulates the diffusion of urea into the renal intestitium b) Renin promotes the reabsorption of sodium and water in the nephron c) Renin regulates the osmotic reabsorption of water by the collecting tubules
  4. Substance/s used for assessing glomerular filtration capacity of the kidneys: a) Cystatin C b) Microglobulin c) Hippuric acid
  5. Porphyrins are the intermediary products in the production of: a) heme b) serotonin c) melatonin
  6. Bence Jones Protein: a) Consist of kappa and lambda light chains

b) Often found in the urine of patients with multiple sclerosis c) Precipitates when urine is heated to 100 degrees Celsius and redissolves when cooled to 60 degrees Celsius

  1. Causes of a falsely increased urine specific gravity: a) Urine protein of about 250 mg/dl b) Glucose level > 1 g/dl c) Ketoacidosis
  2. Concentration test/s to assess ability of kidneys to reabsorb and secrete solutes: a) Mosenthal b) Specific gravity measurement c) Fishberg
  3. The absence of this enzyme will cause the appearance of phenylpyruvic acid in urine: a) tyrosine transaminase b) phenylalanine hydroxylase c) homogentisic acid oxidase
  4. HCG could be used as a tumor marker in which among the following: a) choriocarcinoma b) hydatidiform mole c) multiple pregnancies
  5. A consistent urine pH of 7.2 indicate/s: a) renal tubular acidosis b) patient is vegetarian c) excessive vomiting
  6. Urea is NOT A GOOD marker for glomerular filtration rate because: a) it depends on protein intake of the patient.

c) Cystine

  1. Sources of errors in creatinine clearance measurement : a) A 24 hour urine collection from an individual on a vegetarian diet b) A plasma sample drawn at the beginning instead of during the 24 hours urine collection c) A 24 hour urine collection maintained at room temperature throughout the collection
  2. Look-alike elements of WBC in urine and thus may cause overestimation of count: a) RTE from collecting duct b) Dead trichomonads c) Crenated RBC
  3. Reagents strip test affected by ascorbic acid (falsely low or false negative results): a) Blood b) Nitrite c) Ketones END