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AMCA CERTIFICATION TEST - MEDICAL ASSISTING STUDY GUIDE - SET A LATEST UPDATED, Exams of Medical Records

University of CumbriaMedical Records

AMCA CERTIFICATION TEST - MEDICAL ASSISTING STUDY GUIDE - SET A LATEST UPDATED 1. Which of the following is considered a parasitic infection? A. Lyme disease B. Rabies C. Ringworm D. Malaria - ANSWER 2. Aspirin and acetaminophen are examples of: A. Analgesics and antipyretics B. Antitussives and decongestants C. Antihistamines and antiemetics D. Antidotes and antibiotics - ANSWER 3. Demerol 75 mg, IM every 4 hours, as needed for severe pain, is what type of medication order? A. Single B. PRN C. Stat D. Routine - ANSWER 4. This unit in the hospital is run by physicians and experts in the field of musculoskeletal disorders of bones, joints, ligaments and tendons, identify this department. A. Rheumatology B. Obstetrics C. Ophthalmology D. Oncology - ANSWER 5. MSDS information includes: A. Table of chemical elements B. Product manufacturing conditions C. General and emergency information D. Information on competitor products - ANSWER

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AMCA CERTIFICATION TEST - MEDICAL ASSISTING
STUDY GUIDE - SET A LATEST UPDATED
1. Which of the following is considered a parasitic infection? A.
Lyme disease
B. Rabies C.
Ringworm
D. Malaria - ANSWER
2. Aspirin and acetaminophen are examples of: A.
Analgesics and antipyretics
B. Antitussives and decongestants C.
Antihistamines and antiemetics
D. Antidotes and antibiotics - ANSWER
3. Demerol 75 mg, IM every 4 hours, as needed for severe pain, is what type of
medication order?
A. Single
B. PRN
C. Stat
D. Routine - ANSWER
4. This unit in the hospital is run by physicians and experts in the field of
musculoskeletal disorders of bones, joints, ligaments and tendons, identify this
department.
A. Rheumatology
B. Obstetrics
C. Ophthalmology
D. Oncology - ANSWER
5. MSDS information includes:
A. Table of chemical elements
B. Product manufacturing conditions C.
General and emergency information
D. Information on competitor products - ANSWER
6. The physician prescribes a buccal medication. The medical assistant should instruct the
patient to:
A. Place the medication between the lower teeth and cheek B.
Chew the medication and swallow it
C. Place the medication under the tongue
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Download AMCA CERTIFICATION TEST - MEDICAL ASSISTING STUDY GUIDE - SET A LATEST UPDATED and more Exams Medical Records in PDF only on Docsity!

AMCA CERTIFICATION TEST - MEDICAL ASSISTING

STUDY GUIDE - SET A LATEST UPDATED

  1. Which of the following is considered a parasitic infection? A. Lyme disease B. Rabies C. Ringworm D. Malaria - ANSWER
  2. Aspirin and acetaminophen are examples of: A. Analgesics and antipyretics B. Antitussives and decongestants C. Antihistamines and antiemetics D. Antidotes and antibiotics - ANSWER
  3. Demerol 75 mg, IM every 4 hours, as needed for severe pain, is what type of medication order? A. Single B. PRN C. Stat D. Routine - ANSWER
  4. This unit in the hospital is run by physicians and experts in the field of musculoskeletal disorders of bones, joints, ligaments and tendons, identify this department. A. Rheumatology B. Obstetrics C. Ophthalmology D. Oncology - ANSWER
  5. MSDS information includes: A. Table of chemical elements B. Product manufacturing conditions C. General and emergency information D. Information on competitor products - ANSWER
  6. The physician prescribes a buccal medication. The medical assistant should instruct the patient to: A. Place the medication between the lower teeth and cheek B. Chew the medication and swallow it C. Place the medication under the tongue

D. Dissolve the medication in water and drink it - ANSWER

  1. Which of the following is the best specimen to test for levels of iron in the blood? A. The one collected in a tube that contains sodium citrate B. The one collected in a microcuvette C. The one collected in the tube that contains EDTA D. The one collected in a tube with no additive - ANSWER
  2. All pathogens are: A. Microorganisms that live in soil B. Microbes that can cause disease C. Communicable microorganisms D. Normal bacteria found on skin - ANSWER
  3. Every prescription for a controlled substance requires the physicians signature and a number? A. FDA B. DEA C.EPA D.CDC - ANSWER
  4. When using a No. 10 envelope, where should the address be placed? A. 10 lines down from the top and 4 inches from the left edge of the envelope B. 14 lines down from the top and 2 inches from the left edge of the envelope C. 10 lines down from the top and 2 inches from the left edge of the envelope D. 14 lines down from the top and 4 inches from the left edge of the envelope - ANSWER
  5. What drug prevents the action of another drug or chemical? A. Trade B. Narcotic C. Synergist D. Antagonist - ANSWER
  6. Co-insurance is calculated based on a: A. A capitation rate B. Percentage of charge C. A fixed charge for each visit D. Number of policy holders in the plan - ANSWER
  7. Muscles that act on the knee joint exhibit two actions: A. Adduction and lateral rotation B. Medical rotation and extension C. Adduction and Abduction D. Flexion and extension - ANSWER
  1. The functional unit of the kidney is the: A. Nephron B. Ureter C. Urethra D. Bladder - ANSWER
  2. Which of the following types of gloves can be decontaminated and reused if they show no signs of deterioration after use? A. Disposable B. Utility C. Sterile D. Examination - ANSWER
  3. After obtaining an ECG tracing, a Medical Assistant would be expected to? A. Check the patient with a pulse oximeter to verify accuracy of the ECG tracing B. Evaluate the patient's medication list for cardiac altering drugs C. Instruct the patient on the tracing results and cardiac prognosis D. Observe the tracing for quality and decide if another tracing may be required - ANSWER
  4. There are two types of civil actions healthcare providers for injuries resulting from health care, The first one is lack of informed consent and the second one is: A. Violation of standard of care B. Trial and Post trial C. Violation of confidentiality D. Violation of continued care plan - ANSWER
  5. Dr. Jones and Dr. Brown decide to share a practice. Together, they share patients, expenses, profits and assets. Which type of medical practice is this? A. Group practice B. Clinic C. Partnership D. Sole proprietorship - ANSWER
  6. What is the appropriate test used for heparin therapy? A. POCT B. APPT C. H&H D. SST - ANSWER
  7. A provider withdraws from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of discharge is considered: A. Abandonment B. Malpractice C. Negligence D. Slander - ANSWER
  1. Which agency regulates the Controlled Substances Act? A. IRS B. DEA C. SWAT D. OSHA - ANSWER
  2. Defamation through spoken statements is known as: A. Libel B. Sympathy C. Empathy D. Slander - ANSWER
  3. Insulin syringes are calibrated in: A. Milliliters B. Units C. Cubic centimeters D. Minims - ANSWER
  4. Which of the following is not true regarding HIPPA laws? A. Patients can make informed choices regarding how their personal health information is used B. Few boundaries are set on the use and release of health records C. Patients have more control over their medical records D. Violators are held accountable if patient privacy rights are compromised - ANSWER
  5. To determine our ventricular pulse, the EKG technician would: A. Calculate the ST repolarization segments B. Calculate the spacing between the P waves C. Calculate the spacing between the ventricular repolarization T waves D. Calculate the spacing between the QRS complexes - ANSWER
  6. PHI stands for: A. Protected health information B. Private health instructions C. Private health information D. Protected health instructions - ANSWER
  7. Which situation would a Medical Assistant's signature be required? A. After the chief complaint is documented B. After the patient gives a medical history account C. On an informed consent document D. When a patient gives implied consent - ANSWER
  8. The Privacy Rule gives patients the right to: A. Access their medical record

B. 210 lb. C. 200 lb. D. 195 lb. - ANSWER

  1. While taking a patient's medical history for active tuberculosis, what type of PPE is required? A. Goggles B. Lab coat C. Gloves D. Mask - ANSWER
  2. Most exposures to HIV in healthcare settings are the result of: A. Contact with AIDS patients B. Splashes during surgery C. Accidental needle sticks D. Tainted blood transfusions - ANSWER
  3. The four symptoms of inflammation are erythema, edema, pain, and: A. Irritation B. Vomiting C. Heat D. Headache - ANSWER
  4. A tympanic temperature means the body temperature is measured: A. Under the armpit B. Under the tongue C. At the eardrum D. In the rectum - ANSWER
  5. A pulse site used to measure blood pressure is: A. Brachial B. Popliteal C. Radial D. Temporal - ANSWER
  6. What is the correct way to calculate pulse pressure? A. The number found when subtracting the diastolic from the systolic B. The sum of the diastolic and the systolic C. The pulse taken at the carotid location D. The pulse taken at the apical location - ANSWER
  7. The patient has been given a prescription that says the medication should be taken "bid". This medication should be taken: A. Before bed time B. Once a day C. Before meals

D. Twice a day - ANSWER

  1. Which of the following procedures can be performed by a medical assistant? A. Intramuscular injection B. Start fluids through a catheter C. Insert peripheral catheter D. Intravenous injection - ANSWER
  2. Post- prandial means: A. Before a meal B. Before bed time C. Fasting D. After a meal - ANSWER
  3. A round, raised skin lesion with itching that is a positive sign of reaction to allergic testing is a: A. Wheal B. Nodule C. Papule D. Vesicle - ANSWER
  4. You are to draw the blood of a patient. After reviewing the lab order, you realize that you need to draw a CBC w/diff (complete blood count with differential) on your patient. knowing that this test is drawn in a lavender top-tube, which lab department would this go to for processing? A. Microbiology B. Hematology C. Coagulation D. Chemistry - ANSWER
  5. The patient information sheet contains: A. The past medical history of the patient B. The patient's past family history C. The patient's chief complaint D. patients personal and insurance information - ANSWER
  6. Which of the following drug administration routes is the most appropriate for a patient who has nausea and vomiting? A. Nasal B. Buccal C. Sublingual D. Rectal - ANSWER
  7. The medical assistant is to collect a Prothrombine time (PT) test, a complete Blood Count (CBC), and a fasting Blood Sugar (FBS). What is the correct order of draw? A. Grey ( FBS), Lavender (PT), Red (CBC)
  1. The body organ targeted by HBV is the: A. Brain B. Liver C. Heart D. Lungs - ANSWER
  2. A female patient came into the office for her scheduled routine physical. You are measuring the patient's vital signs. Which part of the brain is responsible for the temperature regulation? A. Hypothalamus B. Thalamus C. Medulla oblongata D. Pons - ANSWER
  3. What position should the patient be placed in when performing an ECG? A. Dorsal recumbent B. Supine C. Trendelenburg D. Prone - ANSWER
  4. Which mode of infection transmission occurs from touching contaminated linens? A. Droplet contact B. Direct contact C. Vehicle contact D. Indirect contact - ANSWER
  5. Which of the following is the most common means of transmitting pathogens? A. Ingesting food B. Blood transfusions C. Coughing D. Touching - ANSWER
  6. When a patient fails to show for their appointment, the event must be: A. Erased from the schedule B. Written on a no-show log C. Monetarily charged to the patient D. Documented in the patient's chart - ANSWER
  7. Notifiable infection must be reported to: A. The patient's physician B. Your supervisor C. World Health Organization D. Center for Disease Control - ANSWER
  8. A quantitative test is one that: A. Tests for the presence and amount of substance in sample

B. Tests for presence of substance only C. Does not require a trained technician D. Tests for all substances found in the sample - ANSWER

  1. The interval between exposure to infection and the appearance of the first symptom is called: A. Incubation period B. Active period C. Means of transmission period D. Incineration period - ANSWER
  2. Complete destruction of all forms of microbial life. A. Sterilization B. Germicide C. Sanitization D. Disinfection - ANSWER
  3. A patient is having a seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate step for the medical assistant to take to protect the patient? A. Raise the patient's feet B. Call for help C. Loosen clothing around the patient's neck D. Administer small amounts of liquid - ANSWER
  4. Most specialists are paid by MCOs using which of the following methods? A. Fee-for-service B. Coinsurance C. Copayment D. Capitation - ANSWER
  5. Which of the following is classified as abnormally rapid, deep or labored breathing? A. Hypertension B. Tachypnea C. Hyperpnea D. Hyperpyrexia - ANSWER
  6. The invoice for the monthly rent of the building where the medical office is located, is typically handled by which department? A. Compliance B. Human Resources C. Accounts payable D. Accounts receivable - ANSWER
  7. What drug enhances the effects of another drug? A. Narcotic B. Antagonist

D. Bronchial asthma - ANSWER

  1. How many electrodes are used as part of a 12-Lead EKG? A. 10 B. 6 C. 12 D. 8 - ANSWER
  2. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute is called: A. Ejection fraction B. Cardiac output C. Contractility D. Blood pressure - ANSWER
  3. Sinus is a slow dysrhythmia. A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia C. Rhythm D. Dysrhythmia - ANSWER
  4. When a person stays in the same position all the time, pressure causes the skin to: A. Become firm and dry B. Weaken and become necrotic C. Become stronger D. Stay pink and moist - ANSWER
  5. A patient's weight should be listed in the patient's chart to the nearest: A. Pound B. 1/2 pound C. Ounce D. 3/4 pound - ANSWER
  6. Which of the following blood pressure readings would be considered Stage 1 Hypertension? A. 148/ B. 116/ C. 126/ D. 178/104 - ANSWER
  7. A normal resting heart rate for the average adult is: A. 15-20 BPM B. 80-120 BPM C. 10-15 BPM D. 60-100 BPM - ANSWER
  8. Automaticity refers to:

A. The ability of the myocardial cell to contract when stimulated by an electrical impulse B. The ability to transmit an electrical stimulus from cell to cell throughout the myocardium C. The ability to respond to an electrical stimulus D. The ability of certain myocardial cells to produce an electrical impulse without the need for outside nerve stimulation - ANSWER

  1. Collection devices used in skin punctures are called: A. Capillary tubes B. Butterfly sets C. Blood culture collection systems D. 25 gauge needles - ANSWER
  2. Normal sinus rhythm has a heart rate of beats per minute: A. 80 to 120 B. 50 to 75 C. 60 to 100 D. 40 to 60 - ANSWER
  3. What is the function of the large intestine (aka colon)? A. Absorb water B. Absorb sugar C. Absorb fat D. Absorb vitamins - ANSWER
  4. No anticoagulants are found in which of the following tubes? A. Green-topped B. Yellow-topped C. Lavender-topped D. Red-topped - ANSWER
  5. Without a clot activator, whole blood typically clots in minutes. A. 60 to 20 B. 1 to 2 C. 30 to 60 D. 5 to 10 - ANSWERa
  6. Thixotropic gel, found in the SST red gray marbled- topped Vacutainer tube: A. Is more dense than red blood cells and less dense than white blood cells B. Is more dense than red blood cells and less dense than serum C. Is less dense than red blood cells but more dense than serum D. Has the same density as red blood cells - ANSWER
  7. Which of the following procedures is appropriate for preparing blood and other potentially infectious materials for transport? A. Freezing the materials before transport

B. 1-2 inches C. 5-7 inches D. 4-6 inches - ANSWER

  1. A female patient came into the clinic for follow-up after a right sided mastectomy with some removal of lymphoid tissue. What is the name of the condition that makes blood draw on the right arm not recommended? A. Syncope B. Lymphostasis C. Anemia D. Hemoconcentration - ANSWER
  2. Which of the following is correct for ending a venipuncture procedure? A. Remove the tourniquet, remove the needle, remove the tube, apply pressure B. Remove the tourniquet, remove the tube, remove the needle, apply pressure C. Remove the needle, remove the tube, remove the tourniquet, apply pressure D. Remove the tube, remove the tourniquet, remove the needle, apply pressure - ANSWER
  3. Which of the following is known as swimmer's ear? A. Otitis externa B. Otitis C. Otitis media D. Otitis interna - ANSWER
  4. Which of the following should be used to chill a specimen as it transported? A. A small freezer unit B. Frozen blocks of ice C. Crushed ice D. Tepid water - ANSWER
  5. The Medical Assistant was sent to the ward to draw blood for coagulation studies, Which of the following is correct about this draw? A. The Medical Assistant can use capillary tubes for the blood collection B. Draw a red top tube before the light blue tube C. Fill a light blue to the top D. Before drawing the specimen, make sure the patient has fasted for 12 hours - ANSWER
  6. The tube of choice for glucose testing is: A. Gray-top tube B. Red-top tube C. Light-blue top blue D. Lavender-top tube - ANSWER
  7. The function of the platelet is to:

A. Cause the blood to clot B. Fight infection C. Carry oxygen D. Carry nutrients - ANSWER

  1. The three kinds of blood cells are: A. Leukocytes, red blood cells, erythrocytes B. Erythrocytes, Platelets, thrombocytes C. Leukocytes, white blood cells, platelets D. Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, leukocytes - ANSWER
  2. The hormone tested for in pregnancy tests is: A. TSH B. Progesterone C. Estrogen D. HCG - ANSWER
  3. When performing a dermal puncture and the lancet hits the bone, what is the potentially serious fatal bone infection that could occur? A. Osteochondritis B. Osteomyelitis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoporosis - ANSWER
  4. You performing a venipuncture procedure on a patient- the needle appears to be inside the vein yet no blood id flowing into the tube. What should you do? A. Pull back on the needle B. Terminate the procedure C. Slightly rotate the needle D. Switch the tubes - ANSWER
  5. Which of the following Vacutainer tubes is routinely used for hematology testing? A. Light blue-topped tubes B. Red-topped tubes C. Lavender topped tubes D. Green-topped tubes - ANSWER
  6. If a laboratory test requires serum, which Vacutainer tube is the tube of choice? A. Lavender - topped tubes B. Black- topped tubes C. Yellow - topped tubes D. Red - topped tubes - ANSWER
  7. Sodium Citrate is the additive in what color tube? A. Red B. Green

A. Basilic vein B. Cephalic vein C. Median cubital vein D. Sclerosed vein - ANSWER

  1. Two employees discussing a patient diagnosis on a hospital elevator with other people present is a violation of: A. Patient rights B. Patient privacy C. Patient confidentiality D. Patient insurance - ANSWER
  2. A patient has been taking aspirin for arthritis. Which of the following is most likely to be affected by it? A. Bleeding time B. Glucose time C. Blood culture collection D. Blood culture results - ANSWER
  3. Mr. Matthews called the office to get the test results for his wife, Martha. What should the medical assistant do? A. Tell Mr. Matthews that you cannot release the information B. Check the medical record to see if Mr. Matthews is really Martha's husband - if so then release the information. C. Tell Mr. Matthews the test results D. Check the medical record to see if Mr. Matthews is authorized to have this information on Mrs. Matthews HIPAA form. if so, then release the information. - ANSWER
  4. If a finger is "excessively" milked during a skin puncture, the result will be: A. A decrease in pain for the patient B. Increased venous blood flow to the puncture site C. An adequate of blood for filling several capillary tubes D. Hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue fluids - ANSWER
  5. You are the only CMAC the night shift. You receive orders for all of the following tests within minutes of one another. Which test has the greatest collection priority? A. STAT CBC in labor and Delivery B. STAT electrolytes in the ER C. Timed blood cultures in ICU D. ASAP electrolytes in CCU - ANSWER
  6. The phenylketonuria (PKU) test is used to diagnose deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase, the most common clinically encountered inborn error of metabolism. it is performed on: A. Blood drawn from a newborn's finger

B. A newborn's fecal specimen C. Blood drawn from a newborn's buttocks D. Blood drawn from a newborn's heel - ANSWER

  1. Samples appear to have been mislabeled and mixed on two patients. Each outpatient has orders for both blood and urine test, so there were two samples for each. What would be the best course of action? A. Recollect all four specimens from the patients B. Re- label the urine samples, but redraw the blood C. Have the patients come back and identify their specimens D. Re-label all the specimens - ANSWER
  2. What specimens require protection from light? A. Bilirubin B. Lactic acid C. Blood gases D. Cryo fibrinogens - ANSWER
  3. Which of the following are also referred to as serum separator tubes (SST)? A. Red/Gray-top tubes B. Red-top tubes C. Light blue-top tubes D. Lavender-top tubes - ANSWER
  4. Which of the following specimens are best utilized to measure clotting factors? A. Serum B. Whole blood C. Plasma D. Sterile blood - ANSWER
  5. Which of the following is a standard speed for an EKG machine? A. 50 mm/second B. 100 mm/second C. 10 mm/second D. 25 mm/second - ANSWER
  6. When would a phlebotomist use a multiple-sample needle? A. Along family members who all require the same test B. In a large out-patient laboratory for all patients requiring the same test C. For microcapillary collection D. When more than one tube of blood is to be collected - ANSWER
  7. A collection tube containing an anti-coagulant must be inverted how many times? A. Tubes containing anti-coagulants are not inverted at all B. Ten times C. Eight times