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Advanced Pharmacology Week 8 Final Exam, Exams of Pharmacology

Advanced Pharmacology Week 8 Final Exam

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/15/2025

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Advanced Pharmacology Week 8 Final Exam
1. A nurse obtaining an admission history on an adult patient notes that the
patient has a heart rate of 62 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 105/62 mm
Hg, and a temperature of 96.2°F. The patient appears pale and complains of
always feeling cold and tired. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss
tests for which condition?
a. Cretinism
b. Graves disease
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Plummer disease: c
2. A patient has a free T4 level of 0.6 ng/dL and a free T3 level of 220 pg/dL.
The patient asks the nurse what these laboratory values mean. How will the
nurse respond?
a. "These laboratory values indicate that you may have Graves disease."
b. "These results suggest you may have hyperthyroidism."
c. "We will need to obtain a total T4 and a total T3 to tell for sure."
d. "We will need to obtain a TSH level to better evaluate your diagnosis.": d
3. A patient with type 1 diabetes who takes insulin reports taking
propranolol for hypertension. Why is the nurse concerned?
a. The beta blocker can cause insulin resistance.
b. Using the two agents together increases the risk of ketoacidosis.
c. Propranolol increases insulin requirements because of receptor blocking.
d. The beta blocker can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia.: d
4. A patient is admitted to the hospital and will begin taking levothyroxine
[Synthroid]. The nurse learns that the patient also takes warfarin
[Coumadin]. The nurse will notify the provider to discuss the dose.
a. reducing; levothyroxine
b. reducing; warfarin
c. increasing; levothyroxine
d. increasing; warfarin: b
5. The nurse assesses a newly diagnosed patient for short-term
complications of diabetes. What does this assessment include?
a. Evaluation for hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis.
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Advanced Pharmacology Week 8 Final Exam

  1. A nurse obtaining an admission history on an adult patient notes that the patient has a heart rate of 62 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 105/62 mm Hg, and a temperature of 96.2°F. The patient appears pale and complains of always feeling cold and tired. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss tests for which condition? a. Cretinism b. Graves disease c. Hypothyroidism d. Plummer disease: c
  2. A patient has a free T4 level of 0.6 ng/dL and a free T3 level of 220 pg/dL. The patient asks the nurse what these laboratory values mean. How will the nurse respond? a. "These laboratory values indicate that you may have Graves disease." b. "These results suggest you may have hyperthyroidism." c. "We will need to obtain a total T4 and a total T3 to tell for sure." d. "We will need to obtain a TSH level to better evaluate your diagnosis.": d
  3. A patient with type 1 diabetes who takes insulin reports taking propranolol for hypertension. Why is the nurse concerned? a. The beta blocker can cause insulin resistance. b. Using the two agents together increases the risk of ketoacidosis. c. Propranolol increases insulin requirements because of receptor blocking. d. The beta blocker can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia.: d
  4. A patient is admitted to the hospital and will begin taking levothyroxine [Synthroid]. The nurse learns that the patient also takes warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse will notify the provider to discuss the dose. a. reducing; levothyroxine b. reducing; warfarin c. increasing; levothyroxine d. increasing; warfarin: b
  5. The nurse assesses a newly diagnosed patient for short-term complications of diabetes. What does this assessment include? a. Evaluation for hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, and ketoacidosis.

b. Cranial nerve testing for peripheral neuropathy.

to take hormones because she is afraid of adverse effects. The nurse will suggest that the woman ask her provider about:

a. Depo Provera. b. Estraderm. c. low-dose estrogens. d. Vaginal Ring: d

  1. An adult male patient will begin androgen therapy for testicular failure. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the treatment regimen? a. "I will need to have x-rays of my hands and feet every 6 months." b. "My libido may improve while I am taking this medication." c. "Taking this drug may lead to the development of prostate cancer." d. "This will restore fertility, so I can have a child.": b
  2. A patient receiving doxazosin presents for a routine evaluation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning? a. Blood pressure 96/ b. Dizziness when standing c. Increased nasal congestion d. Diminished ejaculate volume: a
  3. A patient prescribed dutasteride 2 weeks ago presents with continued complaints of urinary hesitancy. Which action is most appropriate? a. Obtain a urine sample. b. Double the daily dose. c. Perform a prostate examination. d. Document these findings.: d
  4. Which finding would indicate that terazosin has been effective for a patient with BPH? a. Decreased prostate size b. Increased urinary frequency c. Improved urinary hesitation d. Decreased serum PSA levels: c
  5. A nurse is providing education to a patient who is beginning therapy with AndroGel testosterone gel. Which statement made by the patient demon- strates a need for further teaching?

b. "I should avoid direct skin-to-skin contact with my spouse where the medication was applied." c. "I should have my blood drawn for laboratory tests in 14 days." d. "I should apply the medication to my genitals for best results.": d

  1. A patient will begin taking hydroxychloroquine [Plaquenil] for rheumatoid arthritis. What test will the provider order for ongoing monitoring? a. Ophthalmological exam b. Pulmonary Function Test c. Electrocardiogram d. Hypersensitivity testing: a
  2. A patient with refractory gout will be admitted for treatment with intra- venous pegloticase. What additional action will the prescriber take to manage the patient's treatment? a) Prescribe an antihistamine and a glucocorticoid to be administered prior to beginning the pegloticase infusion. b) Initiate allopurinol therapy 24 hours prior to treatment with pegloticase. c) Screen the patient for folic acid deficiency. d) Prescribe a short-acting bronchodilator to be used as needed.: a
  3. What guidance is given to a patient is beginning therapy with oral methotrexate [Rheumatrex] for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will teach this patient about the importance of: a. having routine renal and hepatic function tests. b. you will need to take iron supplements c. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice d. taking the medication on a daily basis.: a
  4. A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that: a. a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treat- ment.

b. starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.

  1. A patient who has been newly diagnosed with asthma is referred to an asth- ma clinic. The patient reports daily symptoms requiring short-acting beta2-ag- onist treatments for relief. The patient has used oral glucocorticoids three times in the past 3 months and reports awakening at night with symptoms about once a week. The patient's forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) is 75% of predicted values. The nurse will expect this patient to be started on which regimen? a. Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA with a SABA as needed b. Daily low-dose inhaled glucocorticoid and a SABA as needed c. Daily medium-dose inhaled glucocorticoid/LABA combination d. No daily medications; just a SABA as needed: a
  2. A patient with asthma comes to a clinic for treatment of an asthma ex- acerbation. The patient's medication history lists an inhaled glucocorticoid, montelukast [Singulair], and a SABA as needed via MDI. The nurse assesses the patient and notes a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 96 beats per minute, and an oxygen saturation of 95%. The nurse auscultates mild expiratory wheezes and equal breath sounds bilaterally. What will the nurse do? a. Contact the provider to request a systemic glucocorticoid. b. Contact the provider to suggest using a long-acting beta2 agonist. c. Evaluate the need for teaching about MDI use. d. Question the patient about how much albuterol has been used.: d
  3. A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital who reports having recurrent, crampy abdominal pain followed by diarrhea. The patient tells the nurse that the diarrhea usually relieves the pain and that these symptoms have occurred daily for the past 6 months. The patient undergoes a colonoscopy, for which the findings are normal. The nurse will plan to teach this patient to: a. use antispasmodic medications. b. avoid food containing lactose and gluten. c. keep a food, stress, and symptom diary. d. use antidiarrheal drugs to manage symptoms.: c
  4. A patient admitted to the hospital has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The patient takes ranitidine [Zantac] and sucralfate [Carafate]. The patient tells the nurse that discomfort is usually controlled but that symptoms occasionally flare up. What will the nurse do?

a. Ask the provider about ordering an endoscopic examination. b. Discuss H. Pylori testing and order for an antibiotic. c. Contact the provider to discuss switching to a proton pump inhibitor. d. Counsel the patient to avoid beverages containing caffeine.: b

  1. A patient who experiences motion sickness is about to go on a cruise. The prescriber orders transdermal scopolamine [Transderm Scop]. The patient asks the nurse why an oral agent is not ordered. The nurse will explain that the transdermal preparation: a. can be applied as needed at the first sign of nausea. b. has less intense anticholinergic effects than the oral form. c. is less sedating than the oral preparation. d. provides direct effects, because it is placed close to the vestibular appara- tus of the ear.: b
  2. A patient with Crohn disease will begin receiving an initial infusion of infliximab [Remicade]. The nurse explains how this drug works to treat this disease. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I may have an increased risk of infections, such as tuberculosis, when taking infliximab." b. "I should report chills, fever, itching, and shortness of breath while receiving the infusion." c. "This drug sometimes provides a complete cure of inflammatory bowel disease." d. "I will take the second dose in 2 weeks, the third dose in 6 weeks, and then a dose every 8 weeks thereafter.": c
  3. The parent of a child with cerebral palsy reports that the child has peb- ble-like stools most of the time and seems uncomfortable if several days have passed between stools. The nurse will suggest that the parent discuss which medication with the child's provider? a. Bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppositories b. Magnesium citrate c. Methylcellulose [Citrucel] d. Polyethylene glycol [MiraLax]: d
  4. A patient who takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis asks a nurse what can be done to prevent ulcers. The nurse will recommend asking the provider about using which medication?

c. methenamine [Hiprex]. d. nitrofurantoin [Macrodantin].: c

  1. An older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops bronchitis. The patient has a temperature of 39.5° C. The nurse will expect the provider to: a. obtain a sputum culture and wait for the results before prescribing an antibiotic. b. order empiric antibiotics while waiting for sputum culture results. c. treat symptomatically because antibiotics are usually ineffective against bronchitis. d. treat the patient with more than one antibiotic without obtaining cultures.: b
  2. A patient develops CDAD. Which antibiotic is recommended for treating this infection? a. Chloramphenicol b. Clindamycin [Cleocin] c. Linezolid [Zyvox] d. Vancomycin: d
  3. A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil]. The nurse will expect the provider to order: a. amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin]. b. ampicillin. c. nafcillin. d. penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].: a
  4. A nurse is teaching a patient who is about to begin drug therapy with orlistat [Xenical]. The patient, whose BMI is 28, has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "Dark urine and light-colored stools are expected side effects with this drug." b. "I should stop taking this drug once my blood pressure and serum glucose have stabilized." c. "I will need to take a multivitamin containing fat-soluble vitamins every day." d. "If I have fatty or oily stools or fecal incontinence I should stop taking this drug.": c
  1. A patient will begin taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] to help with weight loss and asks the nurse why the second ingredient is necessary. Which is the correct response by the nurse? a. "Topiramate helps reduce the risk of seizures that can occur with phenter- mine." b. "Topiramate helps produce feelings of satiety to augment the drug effects." c. "Topiramate increases the appetite suppression caused by phentermine." d. "Topiramate increases the rate of weight loss by acting as a stimulant.": b
  2. An adult who has been self-medicating, using nutritional therapy for an elevated cholesterol level, complains of repeated episodes of flushing. The nurse suspects that the patient has been taking: a. niacin. b. thiamine. c. riboflavin. d. pyridoxine.: a
  3. The nurse is assessing a patient who is malnourished and has a history of poor nutrition. The patient reports difficulty seeing at night. This patient is likely to be deficient in which fat- soluble vitamin? a. A (retinol) b. D c. E (alpha-tocopherol) d. K: a
  4. A nurse is caring for a patient who recently immigrated from a third world country. The patient is thin and appears malnourished. The nurse notes that the patient has loose and missing teeth, gingivitis, and bleeding gums. The patient has multiple sores and ecchymoses. The nurse will expect the provider to order: a. cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12). b. high-dose nicotinic acid. c. intramuscular thiamine for 1 to 2 weeks. d. intravenous ascorbic acid (Vitamin C): d
  5. A patient admitted to the emergency department with abdominal pain tells the nurse he has been taking kava. Which action is the nurse's priority at this time?
  1. An adolescent has begun using benzoyl peroxide lotion twice daily to treat acne. The patient reports experiencing drying and burning of the skin. What will the nurse suggest? a. Applying lotion to the skin after applying the drug b. Reducing the frequency to one application a day c. Discontinuing the medication, because this is likely an allergic reaction d. Requesting a prescription for a gel formulation of the drug: b
  2. A patient with severe allergic conjunctivitis who has been using cromolyn ophthalmic drops for 2 days calls the nurse to report persistence of the symptoms. When the nurse explains that it takes several weeks for maximum benefit to occur, the patient asks if there is something else to use in the meantime. The nurse will suggest that the patient discuss which drug with the provider? a. An ophthalmic demulcent b. H1-receptor antagonists c. Glucocorticoid drops d. Ocular decongestants: b